The person in question said:
In reading Bro. Lackey's article on the KJV Bible in the attached website, and his statement that all other English translations being acceptable for study and revealing divine truth, I find ridiculous. I am persuaded that the 1611 King James Version bible was divinely composed by the providence and inspiration of God.That the KJV was translated by the providence and predestination of God none (I hope) would deny. The same, however, can be said of all translations.
It is interesting to see how the translators of the KJV viewed the other, preceding versions of the Bible in English. Did they rail on them and say, "England hasn't had the Word of God until our inspired translation?" Shall we see? This is from the Translators to the Reader which was prefaced to the Authorized Version for many years.
...We do not deny, nay we affirm and avow, that the very meanest translation of the Bible in English, set forth by men of our profession, (for we have seen none of theirs of the whole Bible as yet) containeth the word of God, nay, is the word of God.Therefore, I believe anyone can see I said nothing they would not have endorsed.
If these baby-sprinkling, Baptist-persecuting, state-church loving Episcopalians were inspired as were the prophets, poets, historians, evangelists and apostles then we are bound to account the King of England and Pope of the Church of England as also inspired by the Holy Ghost when he set forth his rules for the translators. Now whether or not King James was a cross-dresser or a boy child lover we will not speculate upon. There is evidence from his enemies he was; there is evidence from his friends he was not. That part matters not to us, what we can say is while in Scotland he was a Presbyterian, but his religious convictions were so strong that he gladly embraced Episcopacy when crowned King of England, and became head (pope) of the Church of England.
Why did James set his translators to work? Simple: he hated the Geneva Bible, particularly the notes. He had no great motive to give the people a good Bible, an inspired Bible. He wanted the common version out of the hands of the people and wanted it replaced with one favorable to his position as King. He also wanted to make sure his translators didn't give the people translations of certain "ecclesiastical" words. Don't translate words like "church" or "baptize!" James must have been as inspired as Paul to have given them that rule (#3.) He did not live to see his Authorized Version replace the Geneva in hearts, minds and pulpits of the people.
Our would-be instructor doesn't know the history of versions in the 1600s. He states, "Furthermore, has been used for over 407 years to reveal and instruct the heirs of Gods children down through the ages of time." No, not over 407 years! In fact, the only reason our people (Particular Baptists) took up the King's Bible was the Geneva was not able to be printed in England. The reason there are so many 1599 editions of the Geneva is that date was printed by the printers in Holland who supplied the need in England for it. You see they couldn't print the correct date on the books or they would have been contraband since King James wanted no competition for the version he Authorized. Yes, he banned the printing of the Geneva in England.
Lastly, notice again the wording in the Abstract of Principles, "the KJV is the preferred English Translation." That was written in that manner by Elder James F Poole to keep anyone from thinking we believed in any inspired translation of the Scriptures. I hope this is enough to disabuse any from the notion that any translation is as inspired as the originals.
Read your Bibles folks. In fact, read it from several translations. As you read from one you might remember the reading in the KJV and think, "that's clearer English than the KJV." Other times it may make you think about the doctrine or precept the Lord has revealed, not to question it, but to confirm your understanding of the truth.
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