WHO'S SINS WERE IMPUTED TO MANKIND? 2/2 (SANTAMARIA)

 
[We conclude our article on imputation - ed]

The word imputed in the KJV appears 13 times in both testaments. Here are the passages:

impute  (3)

1Sam. 22:15 Let not the king impute anything unto his servant,

2Sam. 19:19 Let not my lord impute iniquity unto me

Rom. 4:8 is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin.

imputed  (8)

Lev 7:18        neither shall it be imputed unto him that offereth it

Lev 17:4         blood shall be imputed unto that man; he

Rom. 4:11 that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:

Rom. 4:22 And therefore it was imputed to him for

Rom. 4:23 for his sake alone, that it was imputed to him;

Rom. 4:24 to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe in him

Rom. 5:13 but sin is not imputed when there is no law.

James 2:23 it was imputed unto him for righteousness:

imputing  (2)

Hab. 1:11         offend, imputing this his power unto his god.

2Cor. 5:19 not imputing their trespasses unto them

In the Old Testament, there is no connection with Adam.  In Leviticus 7.18 we read, "And if any of the flesh of the sacrifice of his peace offerings be eaten at all on the third day, it shall not be accepted, neither shall it be imputed unto him that offereth it: it shall be an abomination, and the soul that eateth of it shall bear his iniquity."  In this case his own actions, produce or do not produce any imputation of "righteousness."  No righteousness or sins are imputed by anyone else.

I Samuel 22.15 "Did I then begin to enquire of God for him? Be it far from me: let not the king impute any thing unto his servant, nor to all the house of my father: for thy servant knew nothing of all this, less or more."  Here, the fear is that the king would "impute" a blame to his servant.  But let us examine this word impute in the Hebrew.  The word is used in somewhat "legal" term even though it is not legal terminology:

Analysis of יָשֵׂם֩ (yāśēm) in This Verse

• Meaning: The verb יָשֵׂם֩ is in the jussive form, meaning "let (not) place" or "let (not) impute."

• Context: Ahimelech, the priest, is pleading with King Saul not to impute guilt to him or his family for aiding David, as he had no knowledge of David being a fugitive.

• Legal Connotation: In this context, יָשֵׂם֩ carries a judicial or forensic sense—"To assign guilt" or "to attribute blame." This usage aligns with legal language in ancient Hebrew, where verbs like שִׂים (sim) can imply setting forth a judgment or decree.

Thus, while יָשֵׂם֩ itself is not a technical legal term, its use here in the context of accusation and judgment gives it a forensic or judicial nuance.

But either way, there is NO connection to Adam's sin but the possible sin or infraction of the servant of the King.

In the New Testament, we find the same usage: Rom. 4:8 "Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin." Is there any mention of Adam?  No.  This is speaking of a professing believer who is blessed because God is NOT imputing HIS OWN sins, not Adam's.

Rom. 4:11 "And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had, yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised; that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:"

Here, it is not sin that is imputed but righteousness.  This has no connection with Adam!  The same sense is read in Romans 4.23-24: Now it was not written for his sake alone, that it was imputed to him; But for us also, to whom it shall be imputed, if we believe on him that raised up Jesus our Lord from the dead.  Righteousness is spoken of here, not sin.

Look in James 2.23 and II Corinthians 5.19, there is no connection with Adam! But II Corinthians 5.19 does have an interesting phrase: 2Cor. 5:19 To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing THEIR trespasses unto them; and hath committed unto us the word of reconciliation.  Whose sins were imputed?  Adam's? No, their own!

Romans 5

Brethren, let us clear this up!  The word "in" DOES NOT EQUAL IMPUTE!  This is a reading INTO the text!  The passage does not say how we died in Adam.  Or does it?  Yes, it does.  We were IN ADAM and still are until glorification!  We are in him genetically.  We are in him in a physical "union with him!  If Adam was our federal head then Jesus must also be our federal head for the elect.  This would deny eternal vital union!

The exponents of Federal headship cannot run to the passage there Levi was in Abraham's "loins," since this implies a physical connection!  THERE IS NO FEDERAL HEADSHIP BRETHREN! THIS IS A REFORMED CONCEPT WHICH MANY BAPTISTS HAVE ADOPTED WRONGFULLY AND IN IGNORANCE.